篇一：2014年全国高考英语试题及答案-大纲卷
2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（大纲卷）
英 语
本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分，共150分，考试时间120分钟。考生务必将答案涂写在答题卡上，答在试卷上的无效。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10称钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. ￡19.15.B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是 C。
1. What does the woman want to do?
A. Find a place. B. Buy a map. C. Get an address.
2. What will the man do for the woman?
A. Repair her car. B. Give her a ride. C. Pick up her aunt.
3. Who might Mr. Peterson be?
A. A new professor. B. A department head. C. A company director.
4. What does the man think of the book?
A. Quite difficult. B. Very interesting.C. Too simple.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Weather.B. Clothes C. News.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. Why is Harry unwilling to join woman?
A. He has a pain in his knee.B. He wants to watch TV. C. He is too lazy.
7. What will the woman probably do next?
A. Stay at home.B. Take Harry to hospital. C. Do some exercise.
听第7段材料，回答第8 、9题。
8. When will the man be home from work?
A. At 5:45. B. At 6:15. C. At 6:50.
9. Where will the speakers go?
A. The Green House Cinema.B. The new State Cinema.C. The UME Cinema.
听第 8段材料,回答第 10至 12题。
10. How will the speakers go to New York?
A. By air.B. By taxi. C. By bus.
11. Why are the speakers making the trip?
A. For business.B. For shopping.C. For holiday.
12. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Driver and passenger. B. Husband and wife. C. Fellow workers.
听第 9段材料,回答第 13至 16题。
13. Where does this conversation probably take place?
A. In a restaurant.B. In an office.C. In a classroom.
14. What does John do now?
A. He’s a trainer.B. He’s a tour guide. C. He’s a college student.
15. How much can a new person earn for the first year?
A. ＄10,500.B. ＄12,000. C. ＄15,000.
16. How many people will the woman hire?
A. Four. B. Three. C. Two.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How long has the speaker lived in a big city?
A. One year. B. Ten years. C. Eighteen years.
18. What is the speaker’s opinion on public transport?
A. It’s comfortable.B. It’s time-saving. C. It’s cheap.
19. What is good about living in a small town?
A. It’s safer.B. It’s healthier.C. It’s more convenient.
20. What kind of life does the speaker seem to like most?
A. Busy. B. Colorful.C. Quiet.
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 单项填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该涂黑。 例:It is generally considered unwise to give a child____ he or she wants. 答案是B。
A. however B. whateverC. whichever D. whenever
21. ---I’m sorry for breaking the cup.
I’ve got
A. forget itB. my pleasure C. help yourself D. pardon me
22. Unless some extra money , the theatre will close.
A. was found B. findsC. is found D. found
23. Today there are more airplanesA. carryB. carryingC. carriedD. to be carrying
24. Exactly the potato was introduced into Europe is uncertain, but it was probably around 1565.
A. whetherB. whyC. when D. how
25. ---Who’s that the door?
A. HeB. It C. ThisD. That
the nurses was a pay increase, they want reduced hours as well.
A. Not do onlyB. Do not only C. Only not do D. Not only do
27. Raymond’s parents wanted him to haveA. goodB. betterC. bestD. the best
28. I think Mrs. Stark could beA. anywhere B. anybody C. anyhowD. anything
29. September 30 is the dayA. byB. for C. withD. in
30. Although you find bargains in London, it’s not generally a clean place to shop.
A. should B. needC. mustD. can
31. Caroline doesn’t have a gift for music, but she it with hard work.
A. goes back on B. takes away from C. makes up for D. Catches up with
32. The reports went missing in 2012 and nobody them since.
A. seesB. sawC. has seen D. had seen
me tomorrow and I’ll let you know the lab result.
A. Calling B. Call C. To callD. Having called
34. Hey was away from home for quite a bit and saw his family.
A. frequently B. seldomC. alwaysD. usually
35. ---What did you do last weekend?
---Oh, nothing .
A. much B. elseC. everD. yet
第二节 完形填空（共20小题：每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑
Joe Simpson and Simon Yates were the first people to climb the West Face of the Siula Grande in the decided to risk his and try to lower Joe down the mountain on a rope(绳).
occurred. They couldn’t see or hear 峭壁for Joe to climb back for Simon had to pull him up. Joe’s . In tears, he cut the rope. Joe into a huge crevasse(裂缝) in the ice below. He had no food or water and he was in terrible pain. He couldn’t walk, but hetowards their camp, nearly ten Simon had , but he didn’t . Three days later, in the middle of the night, he heard Joe’s voice. He couldn’t Joe was there, a few meters from their tent, still alive.
36. A. hurriedly B. carefully C. successfully D. early
37. A. difficult B. similar C. special D. normal
38. A. climbed B. worked C. restedD. continued
39. A. unwillinglyB. safely C. slowly D. regretfully
40. A. fortune B. time C. healthD. life
41. A. lay B. settled C. went D. looked
42. A. damage B. storm C. change D. trouble
43. A. by mistakeB. by chanceC. by choice D. by luck
44. A. unnecessaryB. practical C. important D. impossible
45. A. height B. weight C. strengthD. equipment
46. A. Finally B. Patiently C. Surely D. Quickly
47. A. stand backB. take a rest C. make a decisionD. hold on
48. A. jumped B. fell C. escaped D. backed
49. A. managed B. planned C. waited D. hoped
50. A. run B. skate C. move D. march
51. A. around B. away C. aboveD. along
52. A. headed for B. traveled toC. left forD. returned to
53. A. dead B. hurt C. weakD. late
54. A. secretly B. tiredly C. immediately D. anxiously
55. A. find B. believe C. make D. accept
第三部分 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Arriving in Sydney on his own from India, my husband, Rashid, stayed in a hotel for a short time while looking for a house for me and our children.
During the first week of his stay, he went out one day to do some shopping. He came back in the late afternoon to discover that his suitcase was gone. He was extremely worried as the suitcase had all his important papers, including his passport(护照).
He reported the case to the police and then sat there, lost and lonely in strange city, thinking of the terrible troubles of getting all the paperwork organised again from a distant country while trying to settle down in a new one.
Late in the evening, the phone rang. It was a stranger. He was trying to pronounce my husband’s name and was asking him a lot of questions. Then he said they had found a pile of papers in their trash can(垃圾桶)that had been left out on the footpath. My husband rushed to their home to find a kind family holding all his papers and documents(文件). Their young daughter had gone to the trash can and found a pile of unfamiliar papers. Her parents had carefully sorted them out, although they had found mainly foreign addresses on most of the documents. At last they had seen a half-written letter in the pile in which my husband had given his new telephone number to a friend.
That family not only restored the important documents to us that day but also restored our faith and trust in people. We still remember their kindness and often send a warm wish their way.
56.What did Rashid plan to do after his arrival in Sydney?
A. G(原文来自：wWW.DxF5.com 东 星资源网:高考大纲卷英语答案)o shoppingB. Find a house C. Join his family D. Take a vocation
57.The girl’s parents got Rashid’s phone number from_______.
A. a friend of his family B. a Sydney policeman C. a letter in his papersD. a stranger in Sydney
58.What does the underlined word ―restored‖ in the last paragraph mean?
A. Showed B. Gave back C. Delivered D. Sent out 59.Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A. From India to Australia. B. Living in a New Country. C. Turning Trash to Treasure. D. In Search of New Friends.
B
Since the first Earth Day in 1970,American have gotten a lot ―greenter‖ toward the environment(环境). ―We didn’t know at that time there even was an environment, let alone that there was a problem with it,‖ says Bruce Anderson, president of Earth Day USA.
But what began as nothing important in public affairs has grown into a social movement. Business people, political leaders, university professors, and especially millions of grass-roots Americans are taking part in the movement. ―The understanding has increased many, many times,‖ says Gaylord Nelson, the former governor from Wisconsin, who thought up the first Earth Day.
According to US government reports, emissions (排放)from cars and trucks have dropped from 10.3 million tons a year to 5.5 tons .The number of cities producing CO beyond the standard has been reduced from 40 to 9. Although serious problems still remain and need to be dealt with, the world is a safer and healthier place. A kind of ―Green thinking‖ has become part of practices .
Great improvement has been achieved. In 1988 there were only 600 recycling(回收利用) programs; today in 1995 there are about 6,600. Advanced lights, motors, and building designs have helped save a lot of energy and therefore prevented pollution .
Twenty–five years ago, there were hardly any education programs for environment. Today, it’s hard to find a public school, university, or law school that does not have such a kind of program.‖ Until we do that, nothing else will change!‖ says Bruce Anderson .
60. According to Anderson, before 1970, Americans had little idea about ___.
A. the social movementB. recycling techniques C. environmental problems D. the importance of Earth Day
61. Where does the support for environmental protection mainly come from?
A. The grass–roots levelB. The business circleC. Government officials D. University professors
62. What have Americans achieved in environmental protection?
A. They have cut car emissions to the lowest. B. They have settled their environmental problems.
C. They have lowered their CO levels in forty cities. D. They have reduced pollution through effective measures.
63. What is especially important for environmental protection according to the last paragraph ?
A. Education.B. Planning.C. Green living.D. CO reduction.
C
One of the latest trend(趋势) in American Childcare is Chinese au pairs. Au Pair in Stamford, Conn., for example, has got increasing numbers of request for Chinese au pairs from zero to around 4,000 since 2004. And that’s true all across the country.
―I thought it would be useful for him to learn Chinese at an early age.‖ Joseph Stocke, the managing director of a company, says of his 2-year-old son. ―I would at least like to give him the chance to use the language in the future.‖ After only six months of being cared by 25-year-old woman from China, the boy
篇二：2014年高考真题——英语(大纲卷)精品解析版
2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语（大纲卷）
英语
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一道小题，从每题所给的A B C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. ￡19.15B.￡9.18 C. ￡9.15
答案是C
1. What does the woman want to do?
A. Find a placeB. Buy a mapC. Get an address
2. What will the man do for the woman?
A. Repair her carB. Give her a rideC. Pick up her aunt
3. Who might Mr. Peterson be?
A. A new professor.B. A department head. C. A company director
4. What does the man think of the book?
A. Quite difficultB. Very interestingC. Too simple
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Weather B. ClothesC. News
第二节（共15小题：每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或对白，每段对话或对白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题。每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6断材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Why is Harry unwilling to join woman?
A. He has a pain in his knee.
B. He wants watch TV.
C. He is too lazy.
7. What will the woman probably do next?
A. stay at home B. Take Harry to hospital.C. Do some exercise
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题
8. When will the man be home from work?
A. At 5:45B. At 6:15 C. At 6:50
9. Where will the speakers go?
A. The Green House Cinema
B. The New State Cinema
C. The UME Cinema
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. How will the speakers go to New York?
A. By airB. By Taxi C. By bus
11. Why are the speakers making the trip?
A. For business B. For shopping C. For holiday
12. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Driver and passenger B. Husband and wife Fellow workers
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. where does this conversation probably take place?
A. In a restaurant B. In an officeC. In a classroom
14. What does John do now?
A. He’s trainer. B. He’s a tour guide C. He’s a college student
15. How much can a new person for the first year?
A. $10,500 B. $12,000 C. $15,000
16. How many people will the woman hire?
A. FourB. Three C. Two
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How long has the speaker lived in a big city?
A. One year B. Ten years C. Eighteen years.
18. What is the speaker’s opinion on public transport?
A. It’s comfortable B. It’s time-saving C. It’s cheap
19. Whay is good about living in a small town?
A. It’s safer B. It’s healthierC. It’s more convenient
20. What kind of life does the speakers seem to like most?
A. Busy, B. Colourful.C. Quiet
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
单项填空(共15小题:每小题1分，满分15分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中.选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. --- I’m sorry for breaking the cup.
--- Oh, ____ --I’ve got plenty.
A. forget it B. my pleasureC. help yourself D. pardon me
【考点】考察交际用语
【答案】A
【解析】本题的四个选项都是交际用语中常考的内容。A没关系（回答对方的道歉）！得了吧（否定对方的提议）！B我的荣幸（帮助对方做完某件事情后面回答对方的感谢）。C请自便；D原谅我。句义：—对不起，我打破了杯子。—没关系，我有很多杯子的。根据句义说明A正确。
【试题延伸】本题要特别注意my pleasure的用法，它表示：帮助对方做完某件事情后面回答对方的感谢；with pleasure表示同意帮助对方做某是，但是事情还没有做。
【举一反三】—What are you going to do this weekend?
一 . If time permits, I may go to Shanghai with my friends.
A. Don’t mention it B. It doesn’t matter C. Forget it
【考点】交际用语—征求意见或看法
【答案】D
【解析】根据题中的语境，特别是答语的后半部分“If time permits”，可知“看情况决定”选择故选择A项“It depends”，表示同意，其它选项不合题意。本题比较容易。
D. It depends
22. Unless extra money____, the theatre will close.
A. was found B. findsC. is foundD. found
【考点】考察时态
【答案】C
【解析】本题考察的是时态。句义：除非找到另外的投资，否则这个电影院就监视被关闭。本句中Unless引导的是一个条件状语从句，使用一般现在时代替将来时，后面的主句使用将来时。根据句义可知mony和find构成被动关系，所以也要使用被动语态。故C正确。
【试题延伸】时态题的考查关键是抓住句子的上下文含义和句中的时间状语。要根据时间状语来选择合适的时态，在平时的学习中要注意积累有关时态的用法和各种时态的特殊之处。在条件状语从句中用一般现在时代替将来时等
23. Toady there are more airplanes _____ more people than ever before in the skies.
A. carryB. carrying C. carried D. to be carrying
【考点】考察非谓语动词
【答案】B
【解析】本题查看的是非谓语动词中的分词做定语用法。动词carry与前面的名词airplanes构成逻辑上的主动关系，所以使用现在分词短语carrying more people than ever before在句中做定语。相当于短语从句which carry more people than ever before.句义：现在太空中有更多的能够运载比以前的飞机运载更多的乘客的飞机。故B正确。
【举一反三】Mark lives in a big pleasant room ______ approximately 5 meters by 6 meters.
A. measures
【答案】B
试题分析：本句中的动词measure可以作为及物动词vt.测量；估量；也可以表示：距离（或长度、宽度、数量等）为…；本句中的measure表示的就是第2层含有距离（或长度、宽度、数量等）为….；动词measure与前面的名词room构成逻辑上的主动关系，故使用现在分词measuring approximately 5 meters by 6 meter来修饰前面的名词room。句义：Mark生活在一个面积大约为5米乘6米的很大的舒服的房子里。故B正确。
考点：考察分词做定语
24. Exactly ____ the potato was introduced into Europe is uncertain, but it was probably around 1565.
A. whetherB. why C. when D. how
B. measuringC. to be measuredD. having measured
【考点】考察名词性从句
【答案】C
【解析】本题考察的是名词性从句中的主语从句。在本句中Exactly when the potato was introduced into Europe.句义：土豆确切是在何时被引进到欧洲还不确定，但是大约是在1565年左右。Whether表示“是否”，why表示“原因”；how表示“方式”。根据后半句it was probably around 1565.可知本句谈论的是时间。故C正确。
【试题延伸】主语从句是在复合句中充当主语的从句，通常放在主句谓语动词之前或由形式主语it代替，而本身放在句子末尾。解答这类题目，关键在于分析清楚句子结构。通过判断引导词在从句中所作的成分及意义，来选择正确的引导词。连接主语从句的从属连词主要有that, if, whether，和疑问词（what how where when ...)。that引导表示陈述句的主语从句，if和whether，whether...or not引导表示“是否”，引导一般疑问句。连接代词主要有who,whom,whose,what,whoever,whomever,whosever,whatever,whichever等。连接代词一般指疑问，但what, whatever除了指疑问外，也可以指陈述。连接副词主要有when, where, why, how, whenever, wherever, however等.
【举一反三】It suddenly occurred to him he had left his keys in the office.
A．whether B．where C．which D．that
【答案】D
【考点】考察名词性从句当中的主语从句。
【解析】it作形式主语，真正的主语为that he had left his keys in the office。且that在句中无意义，并不充当任何成分。
25. --- Who’s that at the door?
--- _____ is the milkman.
A. He B. ItC. This D. That
【考点】考察强调句型
【答案】B
【解析】本题是一个强调句型的省略形式。在milkman后面省略了that is at the door。句义：—门旁边的是谁啊？—站在们旁边的是送牛奶的人。强调句型的基本结构是It is/was+被强调成分 that/who+其他成分。故B正确。
【举一反三】It wasn’t until nearly a month later
A.since B.whenI received the manager’s reply. D.that C.as
篇三：2016高考全国新课标卷英语考试说明和考试大纲
2016高考全国新课标卷英语考试说明和考试大纲
I. 关于考试要求的说明
一、语言知识
要求考生了解和掌握《普通高中英语课程标准（实验〉》附录中所列出的各项内容，包括语音项目、语法项目、功能意念项目、话题项目和词汇。 二、语言运用 1. 听力
听力是与外国人直接交往中必不可少的一种语言能力。该部分要求考生听懂有关日常生活中所熟悉话题的简短对话和独白。考生应能： （1）理解主旨和要义
任何一段对话或独白总会围绕一个主旨或者一个中心思想展开。有时，主旨要义会比较明确；有时则会贯穿整个对话或独白，考生需自己去归纳、概括。 （2）获取事实性的具体信息
为了说明和支持主旨，对话或独白中总会出现一些具体信息，如时间、地点、人物等。这些信息是理解和把握对话或独白主旨必不可少的内容，也常常是听力部分的重点考查项目。 （3）对所听内容作出简单推断
话语发生的场合、说话者之间的关系等对话语含义的理解起着举足轻重的作用，对这些背景知识的推断能力在一定程度上可以体现一个人对口语的理解能力，因而也是听力测试所要考查的重点项目之一。
（4）理解说话者的意图、观点和态度
一般来讲，说话者总会有说话的意图，或是提出或回答问题，阐述自己的想法，或是表明自己的态度或意见，对此的理解或推断在一般交往中非常重要。有时，说话者的意图或观点是明说出来的，有时则隐含在对话的字里行间，需要听者自己去揣摩、推断。 2. 阅读理解
阅读文章是我国考生接触外语的最主要途径，因此，阅读理解在试卷中占权重较大。该部分要求考生读懂熟悉的有关日常生活话题的简短文字材料，例如公告、说明、广告以及书、报、杂志中关于一般性话题的简短文章。考生应能： （1）理解主旨和要义
任何一篇文章都会有一个主旨要义。有时从文章的第一个段落，甚至第一个句子即可得出文章的主旨要义，从这一段或这个句子读者会知道文章描述的是谁或什么（即文章的主题），亦会了解作者希望读者了解主题方面的哪些内容。有时，文章的主旨要义则需从文章的字里
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行间进行推断。这类试题主要考査考生略读文章、领会大意的能力，它对考生的归纳、概括能力有一定的要求。 （2）理解文中具体信息
文章主题和中心思想的阐述往往需要大量细节信息的支持，这些细节对于理解全文内容至关重要，同时也是归纳和概括文章中心思想的基础。命题人员往往会要求考生根据不同的要求，阅读文章以获得某些特定的信息或准确地寻求所需的细节。这类试题有时比较直接，理解字面意思即可答题；有时则较为间接，需要归纳、概括和推理才能答题。 （3）根据上下文推断单词和短语的含义
正确理解文章中单词或短语的含义是理解文章的第一步，也是理解文章的基础，不懂单词含义根本就谈不上理解文章。但英语单词的含义并非完全等同于词典中所标注的汉语意思，其含义随不同的语境会有所不同。能根据上下文正确理解灵活变化的词义，才算是真正初步具备了一定的阅读理解能力。此外，阅读文章时，常常会遇到一些过去未见过的词，但许多这类生词的词义可以通过上下文推断出来。这种不使用词典而通过阅读上下文来推断生词含义的能力，是一个合格的读者必须具备的能力，因此也是阅读测试中经常检测的一种能力。 （4）作出简单判断和推理
阅读文章的主要目的是获取信息，即作者所要传达的信息。在实际的阅读活动中，有时需要根据文章提供的事实和线索，进行逻辑推理，推测作者未提到的事实或某事发生的可能性等。 （5）理解文章的基本结构
英语文章讲究使用主题段和主题句。主题段通常在文章开头，简要概括文章的中心思想，主题句可能在一段的开头，也可能在中间或末尾，作用是交代该段的中心思想，再由全段展开或讨论这个意思。各个段落通常由某些起连接作用的词语连接，以使文章行文连贯。如果希望准确、深刻地理解一篇文章，必须对文章的结构有所了解，把握住全篇的文脉，即句与句、段与段之间的逻辑关系。 (6)理解作者的意图、观点和态度
每篇文章都有一个特定的写作目的，或是向读者传递某个信息，或是愉悦读者，或是讲授某个道理。而这些信息通常并不是明确表达出来，而是隐含在文章之中。因此，这类问题要求考生在理解文章总体内容的基础上，去领会作者的言外之意。 3. 写作
写作是四项语言技能中不可分割的一个重要部分，更是语言生成能力的重要表现形式。该部分要求考生根据题示进行书面表达。考生应能： (1) 准确使用语法和词汇
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语言的准确性是写作中不可忽视的一个重要方面，因为它直接或问接地影响到信息的准确传输。应用语法结构和词汇的准确程度是写作部分评分标准中的一项重要内容。 (2)使用一定的句型、词汇，清楚、连贯地表达自己的意思
任何一篇文章都需要有一个主题，作者应该围绕该主题，借助一些句型、词组等的支持，清楚、连贯地表达自己的思想。
II. 关于考试形式与试卷结构的说明
试卷由第I卷和第II卷组成。第I卷包括第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节，为选择题。第II卷包括第三部分的第二节和第四部分，为非选择题。 第一部分 听力
本部分共两节，测试考生理解英语口语的能力。
第一节：共5小题，每小题1.5分。要求考生根据所听到的5段简短对话，从每题所给的3个选项中选出最佳选项。 每段录音材料仅读一遍。
第二节：共15小题，每小题1.5分。要求考生根据所听到的5段对话或独白，从每题所给的3个选项中选出最佳选项。每段录音材料读两遍。
听力考试进行时，考生将答案标在试卷上；听力部分结束后，考生有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 本部分所需时间约为20分钟。 第二部分 阅读理解
本部分共分两节，测试考生阅读理解书面英语的能力。
第一节：共15小题，每小题2分。要求考生根据所提供短文的内容〔不少于900词），从每题所给的4个选项中选出最佳选项。
第二节：共5小题，每小题2分。在一段约300词的短文中留出5个空白，要求考生从所给的7个选项中选出最佳选项，使补足后的短文意思通顺、前后连贯。 本部分所需时间约为35分钟。 第三部分 语言知识运用
本部分共分两节，考査考生对语法、词汇和语用知识的掌握情况。
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第一节：共20小题，每小题1.5分。在一篇约250词的短文中留出20个空白，要求考生从每题所给的4个选项中选出最佳选项，使补足后的短文意思通顺、前后连贯、结构完整。 第二节：共10小题，每小题1.5分。在一篇200词左右的语言材料中留出10个空白，部分空白的后面给出单词的基本形式要求考生根据上下文填写空白处所需的内容（1个单词）或所提供单词的正确形式。 本部分所需时间约为30分钟。 第四部分 写作
本部分共两节，测试考生的书面表达能力。
第一节：满分10分。本题给出一篇约100个单词的短文，文中有10处错误，错误类型包括词法、句法、行文逻辑等。要求考生对每个句子进行判断，如有错即将其改正。
第二节：满分25分。要求考生根据所给情景，用英语写一篇100 个单词左右的短文。情景包括目的、对象、时间、地点、内容等；提供情景的形式有图画、图表、提纲等。 本部分所需时间约为35分钟。
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